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vineyridge
May. 1, 2012, 11:17 AM
The top two horses at Rolex this year were separated by 1% point after dressage.

The #1 horse after dressage was scored identically by the judges at C & E and 1/2% point better by M.

The #2 horse got a 75% from E, 70.3 from C, and 72 from M.

Does the fact that the #1 horse got virtually the same score when viewed from all angles mean that his dressage score was actually a "really" better test?

LaraNSpeedy
May. 2, 2012, 11:01 PM
I guess it depends on what the C judge saw to have a 70.3 as oppposed to the 75%.

I suppose you would have to look at the comments and the individual scores - it is too hard to speculate with this little information - I mean, you could try to guess but it would be just a guess.

CHT
May. 2, 2012, 11:14 PM
I imagine different types of faults are easier to see from different angles. So a horse whose main flaw is crookedness may show more difference in scores than a horse whose main flaws are gait related or just not being ridden with precision.

Could also be that the one horse had a trait that is somewhat subjective. Not sure what that would be though.

But I don't think consistency in judge scoring is indicative of a better or worse horse.

mbm
May. 2, 2012, 11:16 PM
i would say being scored similar from all angles means the horse is more consistent and well rounded - it may not be better trained tho - if that makes sense.